"The biggest mission field in America is professing Christianity".
John MacArthur
OK, a few clarifications and definitions to answer questions like,
"What does that mean? Why did you use that word?"
G-d = Elohim. Elohim is a term used for greatness, strength, or deity. G-d is derived from pagan deities. It's not a good thing to call the King of the Universe by the name of some false deity. See Leviticus 23:13
Why do I put a hyphen in the word g-d? To prevent any kind of glory being given to a false deity.
The L-RD, or the L-rd = Yahweh (YHWH). When the Psalm writer says (in our English translations) "Blessed be the name of the L-ORD" we remain ignorant of just what His Name is. YHWH are the four consonants of His Name. There is some discussion over just which vowels are between the consonants, but most scholars agree it should be Yahweh.
What we do know for sure is that His Name is NOT L-RD. L-rd is also derived from pagan deities, so it falls into the same category as G-d. Besides, there are many pagan L-rds such as the thousands you'll find in Hinduism.
George Harrison of the Beatles fame sung of "My Sweet L-rd." He was not referring to Yahweh, but a Hindu deity. Sorry if that bursts your bubble.
Sadly, "My Sweet L-rd" probably is sung in some worship services today. It's not hard to believe, since so many "Christian" rock/worship groups simply re-record old classic rock songs. It amazes me now how we could sing so many "worship" songs that never even mentioned G-d directly at all. I could've been singing to, or about, anybody.
Old Testament = Tanak, or the the Torah of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms as Yahshua referred to them in Luke 24:44
Testament = Covenant. The Scriptures version quotes Dr Bullinger in The Companion Bible, Appendix 95:
"The word Testament as a translation of the Greek word diatheke (which means covenant), has been nothing less than a great calamity; for, by its use, truth has been effectively veiled all through the centuries; causing a wrong turn to be taken...errors of tradition have usurped the place of important truth. The word Testament as a name for a collectionof books is unknown to Scripture. It come to us through the Latin Vulgate."
Testamonium was a Roman "omen of death." Therefore, we should say Old Covenant at least.
New Testament = Renewed Covenant. See previous blogs for this explanation.
Jesus = Yahshua. Yahshua is the Hebrew name of the Jewish Messiah
Christ = Annointed = Messiah = Moshiach in Hebrew.
Names that begin with "J" = Names that begin with "Y"
Joshua = Yehoshua
Joel = Yo'el
John = Yohanan
Joseph = Yoseph
Jude = Yehudah
James = Ya'acov
Y'all understand that? (Sorry, had to throw that one in. That's southern Hebrew)
Did you notice James in the list? Yep. The Book of James is actually Ya'acov. It's not even close is it?
Another name that needs to be corrected:
Mary = Miriam
One more,
Paul = Sha'ul
Looking at the names of Mary and James certainly brings up a question.
Why are the true Hebrew names for both of these used repeatedly in the Tanak, yet when we get to the Renewed Covenant they are changed to an name form which hides their Jewishness?
Is this intentional? Many say it is, that it betrays an underlining antisemitism in modern translations. In any case, it is certainly a subtle way of influencing and prejudicing our understanding of Scriptural matters.
Law = Torah. While law is the closest English word to convey the Greek word nomos, the Hebrew word Torah is much broader in meaning. Such meanings include "to teach"and "to instruct." Torah refers to the first five books of Scripture, also known as the Law of Moses.
No, Virginia, this is not the same as the movie, "Tora, Tora, Tora" about the Japanese invasion of Pearl Harbor.
The Greek word may also represent ideas or meanings other than Torah from time to time. Some times it refers to a body of rules or system of behavior that may be man made. This is part of what leads to so much confusion regarding the writings of Sha'ul. Just which set of laws is he referring to at any given time?
Perhaps this is one of the reasons Peter (Kefa) warns us that the writings of Sha'ul are difficult to understand and easily twisted.
Are you aware Rabbinic Judaism considered their own writings and commentaries on Torah to actually supersede the written Torah?
"My son, be careful concerning Rabbinical decrees even more than the Torah...the Torah contains prohibitions...but anyone who violates Rabbinical decree is worthy of death." Babylonian Talmud, Eruvin 21b.
Most, if not all, of the Scriptures used as proof texts to show the Law is done away, come from the writings of Sha'ul. Keep in mind that Sha'ul was a Pharisee. He knew all about the Rabbinic decrees. He had probably taught them himself before his encounter with the Messiah.
It is clear to me now that when you finally grasp the understanding Sha'ul refers to more than one "law", it will go a long way toward clearing up the confusion about Yahweh's Torah. Hopefully, you'll begin to realize that it was the man-made laws that needed to be done away - not the loving instructions a loving Elohim gave to His children.
